Introduction
As a preparation for this article I had recently written several responses to a claim that Christ specifically told us not to refer to Mary as blessed, that no Christian should ever refer to her as the 'blessed Virgin Mary'. It came to my attention that this was not a rare claim but one that is often made by some Evangelicals so it seemed fitting to write a full response out of love both for them and the Scriptures.
In accordance with the Wesleyan theological tradition I had believed, even as a Protestant, as John Wesley had expressed in his A Letter to a Roman Catholic: “I believe that he was made man...and born of the blessed Virgin Mary, who, as well after as before she brought him forth, continued a pure and unspotted virgin.” I had a firm commitment to the primacy of God's inspired Word which clearly reveals to us that referring to Mary as 'blessed' is very biblical, and that her blessedness is unique.
I first encountered the idea that we should not be referring to Mary in any special way many years ago while reading Fr. Mateo's Refuting the Attack on Mary: A Defense of Marian Doctrines. In this work the author responds to the critiques made by the Christian Research Institute in which they cite Luke 11:27-28 as proof that Christ himself specifically forbade us to honor his mother in referring to her as blessed. When the opportunity arose in my own life to offer a reasoned defense to my understanding of Scripture on the matter, I was determined to set the record straight, reflect upon the pertinent Scripture verses, and write a clear and thorough response.
Ecumenical Dialogue
It is very true that the English word 'rather' is often used to translate μενοῦν for it is one of the renderings by some translators, but what has been a common attitude among some Evangelicals is an anti-Catholic bias that inhibits them from being open to other possible renderings of μενοῦν in verse 28, which leaves them unwilling to see the statement by the woman in verse 27 in any other way than “exactly what Catholics are doing, which is worshiping and honoring Mary in any way”, and leaves them unwilling to see Jesus' response in verse 28 in any other way than “a clear rebuke to Catholics for calling Mary blessed”. Because of the English word 'rather' some Evangelicals have interpreted Jesus to mean “everything you just said is completely incorrect, to the contrary, blessed only are those...” The problem, as we shall see, is that the anti-catholic reads all of this back into the text instead of examining the text on its own basis in conformity with what Luke has already written concerning the blessedness of Mary.
The strongest anti-catholic argument of this text that I have found is presented in Ron Rhodes' Reasoning from the Scriptures with Catholics. He states: “There is nothing in this verse to support such veneration of Mary. In fact, after an anonymous woman in the crowd called out... Jesus immediately replied, 'On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God, and observe it' (verse 28). Instead of supporting the veneration of Mary, this verse argues against it. The Greek word for 'on the contrary' (menounge), according to Friberg's Greek Lexicon, is used especially “in answers to emphasize or correct on the contrary,' and carries the idea of 'rather'. The Louw-Nida Greek Lexicon says the word is a marker of contrast, carrying the idea, 'but, on the contrary, on the other hand.'”
This bias makes open dialogue and mutual understanding between two Christians exceedingly more challenging and often leads the individual to shut down what could have been a very profitable conversation before it can even start. This bias leads to resistance to any ideas that seem remotely similar to Catholic thought and leaves them relatively closed to even Protestant commentaries if the information is being presented to them by a Catholic.
A person who is generally unwilling to explore the possible meanings of μενοῦν reveals that they are more interested in preserving a translation than they are in being open to the actual inspired text. This narrow-minded approach acts as if the English word 'rather' absolutely and perfectly overlaps the semantic range of μενοῦν. As we shall see shortly, this is far from the case. The anti-catholic bias is apparent when the individual is more interested in their own ideas and using a translation for the purpose of supporting those ideas than they are in being open to the inspired Word of God which was inscripturated in Koine Greek.
The Greek Text of the New Testament
It may not be commonly known that it is only the Greek text that is the inspired Word of God. While we do have several English translations which attempts to accurately reflect the wording and meaning of a text, none of these translations have been directly penned by the inspired authors. Paraphrased attempts to convey the meaning of the Greek often involves more interpretation than usual, and more word for word attempts often are forced to use English words that do not have the exact semantic range as the Greek.
For example, the Greek word αδελφός has a broader semantic range than does the English word 'brother'. The Greek term is widely used in the NT and the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Old Testament) as a nearly related cousin (1 Chron 23:21-22), a more remote kinsman (Deut 23:7; 2 Kings 10:13-14), an uncle or a nephew (Gen 13:8), the relation between men bound by covenant (2 Sam 1:26), or even the relation of Christians with one another (Rom 8:29). But if an American reads the English word 'brother' and interprets it strictly to mean a male person sharing a common parent then the entire range of the Greek word is reduced and limited to only one understanding. In fact, I had a friend once appeal to the English word 'brothers' in relation to Jesus, and their anti-catholic bias would not allow them to consider the actual Greek term.
It is for this reason that many Greek tools are available for pastors and scholars so that they can dive more deeply into the inspired text and attempt to better draw out the full meaning of the Greek when preaching to their congregations. The Greek text often has nuances and intricacies that are not fully available to a reader who do not have these basic and indispensable tools.
At the end of the Lord's Prayer we say “but deliver us from evil” but the Greek states ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ. ἀπὸ means from, and πονηροῦ means evil, but what is τοῦ doing there? ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ literally means 'from the evil'. τοῦ is a definite article and when it is placed in from of a word like πονηροῦ it functions substantively and is more accurately translated “the evil one”. Theologically this makes a lot more sense because as Christians we are protected from the power of the evil one, while we do in fact face the effects of evil in our lives all the time. Without any knowledge of the Greek people would not know this fact. Despite translations and the common English rendering of this prayer used in the Catholic Church, I say “but deliver us from the evil one” even though I am the only one doing it.
It is vitally important that we do not fall into the fallacy of idolizing one particular English translation but should consult multiple translations and utilize Greek study tools to help us truly listen to the inspired text as it is. Our goal should be to never limit possible renderings of the Greek but to remain open to that text which is God-breathed. Building our entire understanding of a passage based solely on an English word with no knowledge of the actual inspired word in the Greek is incredibly dangerous and can lead to restricting God's Word.
God speaks to us through the Greek words, and if we only concern ourselves with a single English translation, then we are closing ourselves off from the nuances and subtleties of what God is trying to tell us. The examples that are shared in this article are just a few of many, many examples of why a growing familiarity with the Greek is vitally important. It is not the English or any translation of the Greek that is the inspired Word of God, it is the Greek text itself!
The Passage: Luke 11:27-28
"As Jesus was saying these things, a woman in the crowd called out, “Blessed is the mother who gave you birth and nursed you.” He replied, “Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and obey it.” (NIV)
I am quoting this passage initially in the New International Version because 1) people often focus their attention upon the English word 'rather', 2) it is one of the common translations that people may encounter, and 3) many translations render the text similarly.
Alternative English Translations
The Greek of Luke 11:28, according to the Critical Text tradition, is Μενοῦν μακάριοι οἱ ἀκούοντες τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ φυλάσσοντες. This is our starting point.
Our initial text was presented in the New International Version: "Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and obey it." (NIV)
Now consider the wording of the New King James Version: "More than that, blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it!" (NKJV)
Other translations similar to the New King James Version...
New Living Translation
Jesus replied, “But even more blessed are all who hear the word of God and put it into practice.”
Contemporary English Version
Jesus replied, "That's true, but the people who are really blessed are the ones who hear and obey God's message!"
Now look at the King James Bible: “But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.”
In these three translations we see that the Greek is being translated variously, 1) confirmatory (NKJV), 2) corrective (NIV), and 3) a combination of both (KJV).
The point of examining these various translations is that it would not be appropriate to presume that the English word “rather” has an exclusive claim upon the Greek text, and likewise to quote it as the definitive explanation of the passage is rather presumptive. Consider a Protestant who has only read the New King James Version their entire life and had read these words of Jesus as 'more than that' over and over again. Are they deceived because the word 'rather' is not used? Is 'rather' inspired by God simply because it happens to be one person's translation of choice? When 'rather' is used as a proof for their argument should a person abandon the NKJV for the NIV? I would bet that a person who has only seen the English word 'rather' are not at all aware of the confirmatory aspect of μενοῦν or μενοῦνγε.
Textual Variant – Is it μενοῦν or μενοῦνγε?
Μενοῦν in
א Sinaiticus 4th
A Alexandrinus 5th
B Vaticanus 4th
Δ Sangallensis 9th
Ξ Zacynthius 6th
Μενοῦνγε in
C Ephraemi Rescriptus 5th
Dea Bezae 5th
X Monacensis 10th
... and others (.al) The source of these are found in The Expositor's Greek Testament
Sinaiticus, Alexandrinus, and Vaticanus are said to be "the three most important codices preserving an early copy of the whole bible in Greek." (Essential Guide to Bible Versions, Comfort 77) They are also the earliest of all the uncial manuscripts.
Rhodes only mentions μενοῦνγε because he only examined the Greek of the Textus Receptus textual tradition. It is also important to note that most of the stronger 'corrective' language in various lexicons are associated with μενοῦνγε and not with μενοῦν. So he was quite biased in his book because 1) he only quotes the English as “on the contrary”, 2) he did not explain the affirmative nature of μεν, and 3) he did not mention that a textual variant existed.
The main reason for this is that Rhodes was more interested in teaching Evangelicals in how they might draw Catholics away from the Catholic Church than to fully examine all the pertinent material related to the interpretation of the passage. And his methods are no doubt effective because consider the lengths to which I have had to go just to respond to it. Most Catholics will not have these facts readily available to them when readers of Rhodes' book come asking questions and sharing information. This is why I have spent the time writing this article in the hopes to help Christians, especially Catholics, understand all the particulars related to this text and what its most probable meaning.
The Greek Word μενοῦν
Of the entire New Testament we find μενοῦν exclusively in Luke 11:27-28. And if μενοῦνγε is original, which I do not think that it is, it is only used here and in Romans 9:20, Romans 10:18, and once in Philippians 3:8 as μὲν οὖν γε, or in some manuscripts it is just μὲν οὖν. The closest we find μενοῦν in Scripture, beyond our text, is in the form of μεν οῦν, as two distinct particles.
Philippians 3:8 ἀλλὰ μὲν οὖν γε καὶ ἡγοῦμαι πάντα ζημίαν εἶναι διὰ τὸ ὑπερέχον τῆς γνώσεως Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ τοῦ Κυρίου μου, δι’ ὃν τὰ πάντα ἐζημιώθην, καὶ ἡγοῦμαι σκύβαλα ἵνα Χριστὸν κερδήσω
Here is how the inspired Greek text is translated into English by the NRSV: "More than that, I regard everything as loss because of the surpassing value of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord. For his sake, I have suffered the loss of all things, and I regard them as rubbish, in order that I may gain Christ..."
You can clearly see the parallel between the μενοῦν in Luke 11:28 rendered as 'more than that' by the NKJV and the μὲν οὖν γε of Philippians 3:8 rendered as 'more than that' by the NRSV.
μεν is just a weaker form of μην which may sound rather familiar since it is associated with αμην (amen). John uses αμην αμην twenty-five times in the mouth of Jesus throughout his gospel. “Verily, verily I say unto you...” expresses a very strong emphasis upon the truthfulness of the statement that Jesus is about to make. Perhaps it would be a fun side study at some point to explore all twenty-five of these occurrences within the Gospel of John. Importantly, we can clearly see the affirmative aspect of μεν and it is often not translated because it simply affirms what has been said which is implied in saying it.
οῦν is best explained by Thayer: “a conj. Indicating that something follows from another necessarily; [al. Regard the primary force of the particle as confirmatory or continuative, rather than illative...] Hence it is used in drawing a conclusion and in connecting sentences together logically, then therefore, accordingly, consequently, these things being so...”
According to Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, μεν οῦν means “so then, now therefore, verily, etc.) (where μέν is confirmatory of the matter in hand, and οὖν marks an inference or transition...”.
So are there any substantive differences between μενοῦνγε, μεν οῦν γε, μενοῦν γε, etc? Dr. Daniel Powers, New Testament professor with Nazarene Bible College explains the manner in this way:
In the Koine Greek language, there are “compound words” that are formed by joining words together. This happens most often with a preposition and a verb, but it also happens sometimes with smaller particles. Thus, the three small particles/conjunction μὲν οὖν γε can be written separately or as one word. It does not really change the meaning at all, but it is more of a stylistic preference of the writer... Interestingly, the particles μὲν and γε are often untranslatable, which makes their inclusion in this compound word even more challenging to know precisely how they are supposed to be understood.
We can see how μὲν οὖν can function in Luke where you can see how it may not be necessary to translate them at all.
Luke 3:18: And with many other exhortations he preached to the people.
Greek: Πολλὰ μὲν οὖν καὶ ἕτερα παρακαλῶν εὐηγγελίζετο τὸν λαόν·
Translation: Many indeed therefore other things exhorting, he was preaching the good news to the people
As with the lexicons quoted by Rhodes, we do find the language of 'rather' often associated with μενοῦνγε . The Analytical Lexicon To The Greek New Testament by William D. Mounce “also spelled as two words, μενοῦν γε, a combination of particles serving to take up what has just preceded, with either emphasize or to correct; indeed, really, truly, rather...”
How can these terms carry such an idea with them? According to A Manual Greek-English Lexicon of the Greek New Testament μὲν οὖν “in narrative, summing up what precedes or introducing something further (Bl., § 78, 5), so then, rather, nay rather”. The key here is “introducing something further”. As we have seen before the NKJV translated the term as “more than that” and the KJV translates “yea, rather”. Are these substantively different? Dr. Daniel Powers examines these renderings in this manner:
I’m not sure I can detect much of a difference between the meaning/nuance of “yes, rather” and “more than that.” Within the context of the passage, Jesus does not contradict what the woman has said, but he qualifies it by emphasizing an element that is even more important than what she said. In this sense, it seems to me that “yes, rather” and “more than that” are saying essentially the same thing. The phrase “more than that” also affirms what a person has said, but it stresses that there is an even more important or significant understanding to be gained. This seems to be what Jesus is saying in his response to the woman’s declaration. I really don’t see Jesus’ words to this woman as a “rebuke” at all. Jesus certainly refocuses her comments about blessing away from only Jesus’ mother who gave birth to him and nursed him to ALL who hear and obey God’s word. But this is not a rebuke. Instead, it widens the scope of the blessing to an arena of faith instead of merely an arena of childbirth.
George Haydock's Catholic Bible Commentary puts it this way: “Our Saviour does not here wish to deny what the woman had said, but rather to confirm it: indeed how could he deny, as Calvin impiously maintained, that his mother was blessed? By these words, he only wishes to tell his auditors what great advantage they might obtain by attending to his words. For the blessed Virgin, as St. Augustine says, was more happy in having our Saviour in her heart and affections, than in having conceived him in her womb.”
Margaret E. Thrall, a Protestant scholar, in her study Greek Particles in the New Testament, suggests the following interpretation of μενοῦν in Luke 11:27-28: “What you have said is true as far as it goes. But the blessedness of Mary does not consist simply in the fact of her relationship towards myself, but (menoun) in the fact that she shares in the blessedness of those who hear the word of God and keep it, and it is in this that true blessedness lies.”
The Expositor's Greek Testament shows that “μενοῦν might be confirmatory (utique) or corrective (imo vero), or a little of both...”, which is why the KJV translates it as 'yea rather'. And as we have already seen that the 'corrective' aspect is not in the complete negation of what has been stated, as if Christ here negates Scripture, but as we shall see relates to people concerning Him according to the flesh only.
Scripture is quite clear about the blessedness of Mary. This is why Christ was building upon the woman's statement as grace builds upon nature. Christ is expanding upon her words and is drawing her natural understanding of Him and his mother into its proper context.
Gabriel's words to Mary “And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.”
Elizabeth's words to Mary “...Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit and she exclaimed with a loud cry, “Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the fruit of your womb! And why is this granted me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? For behold, when the voice of your greeting came to my ears, the babe in my womb leaped for joy. And blessed is she who believed that there would be a fulfillment of what was spoken to her from the Lord.”
The prophecy of Mary in her Magnificat “For behold, henceforth all generations will call me blessed; for he who is mighty has done great things for me...".
The Woman in the Crowd
When the woman in the crowd says "Blessed is the womb that bore You, and the breasts which nursed You!" she is actually complimenting Jesus! We must not forget that without Christ we are nothing, and this is true in the case of Mary as it is for any of us. All theological implications about Mary are in relation to who Christ is.
For example, Mary is called the Queen Mother because she is the mother of the king. “The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David, and he will reign over Jacob’s descendants forever; his kingdom will never end.” This subject is highly interesting and biblical but goes beyond our purposes here. It is sufficient at this point merely to state that Mary is exactly who she is because of Christ and not because of anything that is inherent in her apart from Christ. If Mary had born a mere man in the flesh it would dim in comparison of that high honor which she has in being the Mother of God (theotokos).
The woman in the crowd saw how great Jesus spoke among the people and as the Pharisees were attacking Jesus, this woman in the crowd interjects just how much she esteemed Jesus, was impressed by him and his discourse, and it was what she thought of Christ, who he was in her eyes according to the flesh, that led her to consider how great it would be to have a son like him.
Matthew Henry Commentary puts it this way: “What an admirable, what an excellent man is this! Surely never was there a greater or better born of a woman: happy the woman that has him for her son. I should have thought myself very happy to have been the mother of one that speaks as never man spoke, that has so much of the grace of heaven in him, and is so great a blessing to this earth."
John Nollard in Word Biblical Commentary, also explains it in this manner: “'Oh to be the mother of such a great son!' This is roughly the sentiment expressed by the woman from the crowd, and as she reflects this maternal sentiment, unbeknown to herself, she fulfills in her words Mary's predication in 1:48. Jesus has clearly made quite an impact on her, and as far as it goes her effusive expression cannot be faulted."
Mary is certainly blessed in the manner stated by the woman and Jesus does not rebuke her as if the substance of her praise of him was misplaced. It is certainly an honor to be the Mother of God. While other Christians have been called to preach or to work miracles, or participate in gifts and roles that are commonly shared among Christians, only one person has the honor which no man ever could, nor anyone else. It must have been amazing to feel God kick in the womb for the first time, to give birth to the King of the Universe, to look upon his cute little face as He nursed at her breast, to watch him take his first step and to speak His first word. I could continue along these lines for an entire article but suffice it to say that Mary pondered all these wondrous things within her heart, and it pierced her soul to offer her son to God to be brutally beaten and crucified, to look upon her own flesh and blood hanging on that cross for the salvation of humanity. Christ will always be her baby. Any mother reading this will understand precisely what I am saying.
In fact, with this woman in the crowd, we are seeing a slight example of the honor that would be given to Mary in fulfillment of her prophesy. However, even though this woman in the crowd does speak well, she does so in a "womanly" manner and from a mere natural perspective since she states that Mary is blessed but it was not for the reason that people would call Mary blessed today, that reason is given in the Magnificat "for he who is mighty has done great things for me". The woman in the crowd would not have fully understood the incarnation of God, nor would have been familiar with Gabriel's announcement to Mary, and Mary's response "Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord; let it be to me according to your word."
So with that said, yes, there is great blessedness in being the Mother of God, and how Jesus responds actually gives honor to his mother because she is a glaring example of one who hears the word of God and keeps it.
Jesus says: "More than that, blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it!"
We see all of this in what Elizabeth said: “Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the fruit of your womb!” And then ends with “And blessed is she who believed that there would be a fulfillment of what was spoken to her from the Lord.” We see here that Elizabeth's words, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit captures the entirety of her blessedness, and so when the woman in the crowd only speaks in part, Christ fills in the rest and says “more than that”.
Mary herself rightly responds to Elizabeth's greeting: "...From now on all generations will call me blessed..." but then explains why: “for the Mighty One has done great things for me...”
In other words, it is the work of God in and through Mary in bringing about the incarnation and using her flesh and blood to redeem to human race. It is not, as the woman in the crowd suggests, while regarding Christ in the flesh only, the mere biological connection to Christ. It was not Mary alone who gave the world such a man, originating in mere biology, apart from the notion of the incarnation, which the woman in the crowd certainly would not have understood. We are called not to regard Christ in the flesh only.
Matthew 13:54-58 shows us a bit of this concern and how those who knew Him and his family, regarding Christ in the flesh only, actually served as an impediment for them to see Him as God incarnate.
"Coming to his hometown, he began teaching the people in their synagogue, and they were amazed. “Where did this man get this wisdom and these miraculous powers?” they asked. “Isn’t this the carpenter’s son? Isn’t his mother’s name Mary, and aren’t his brothers James, Joseph, Simon and Judas? Aren’t all his sisters with us? Where then did this man get all these things?” And they took offense at him. But Jesus said to them, “A prophet is not without honor except in his own town and in his own home.” And he did not do many miracles there because of their lack of faith."
One of the main concerns was that people would regard Christ according to the flesh only, and not see His glory as was clearly shown to Peter, James, and John on the mount of Transfiguration. As Paul expresses in 2 Corinthians 5:16b: "even though we once knew Christ from a human point of view, we know him no longer in that way."
In no manner should we take Christ's words to negate the honor given to the Blessed Virgin Mary, since such honor is given to her through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, and it is this same Spirit that inspires us and moves us to exclaim in the very words of Elizabeth!
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